Amos 9:7

Are you not like the children of the Cushites to Me—Why should I refrain from exacting retribution upon you since you do not return to Me? Have you not come from the sons of Noah like the other nations? Like the Cushites whom you resemble, as the matter is stated: (Jer. 13:22) “Will a Cushite change his skin…? So will you be able to improve.”

Did I not—Was it not out of My goodness, the beginning of My choosing you, My taking you out of the land of Egypt? Now what is that to Me? The Philistines, too, I took out of Caphtor in such a manner when the Caphtorites came upon the Avvites, as the matter is stated (Deut. 2:23) “And the Avvites who lived in open towns up to Gaza etc.” They vanquished also the people of Gaza and the remaining lords of the Philistines under them, and I took them out of their hands, and, even so, I did not make them My people.

and Aram from Kir—And so am I destined to bring Aram up from Kir, where Sennacherib will exile them, and, at the end of days, when the kingdom of Assyria will terminate, they will go out.

The final prophecy begins in this pasuk and goes until the end of Sefer Amos. And it has two parts to it. The first "you are unto Me like the Cushite" and the second "behold days are coming". I have six questions.

The first questions is on the words "Did I not take Israel up from the land of Egypt and the Philistines from Caftor and Aram from Kir" If the purpose of this statement is to tell about the kindness that Gd did for Israel when He took them from Egypt and then mentions that He acted similarly for the other nations, does this decrease the degree of kindness for Israel.

THe second question is about that the Philistines and Caftor are brothers which we know from the geneology of the seventy nations in Breishit 10:14 and Jeremiah 47:4 mentions the PHilistins and Caftor in the same verse. If they are indeed one nation, how did Hashem take the Philistines out of Caftor as if the Caftors had exiled the PHilistines there.

The third questions about Aram and Kir. When this prophecy was given, Aram had not yet been exiled because they were exiled in the days Achaz by the king of Assyria to Kir (Kings 2 16:9), so this was in fact a prophecy about the exile of Aram as well. And the Philistine exile was during Tzidkiyahu days more than 130 years later so how come it is told in past tense like it already happened.

The fourth question, "Behold Gd's Eyes are on the sinful kingdom and I will destroy them" if this is about the Kingdom of Efraim, like the commentaries say, why is told right afterwards "but I will not destroy the house of Jacob" when the kingdom of Efraim was from the house of Jacob. Doesn't one phrase contridict the other.

The fifth quesion "I will shake the house of Israel among the nations like one shakes a sieve and not a pebble falls to the ground" makes it seem like not one will be lost or dead. And immediately after it is contradicted by saying "and all the sinners in My nation will die".

The sixth question "the sinners of My nation will die" is followed by "I will restore the fallen sukkah of Dovid" is switching from telling about bad and teling about good. How can they take place at the same time. I will now explain everything according to these questions.